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"I am always meant for you".


"I always meant for you."

Should "am" be used or not?

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up vote 2 down vote accepted

Edit: Garry's answer went up while I was still working on mine. Garrys rules are good, and I don't disagree with his point of view. My answer takes the approach of showing how both sentences can be correctly used. They could be improved upon by taking Garry's ideas into account, however.

These two sentences have entirely different meanings. Here they are in a larger context that will clarify this:

It doesn't matter whom I go out with, I am always meant for you.

Whenever I said that the money was for John, I always meant for you, not John Januszewski.

In the first case, you are using "meant" in the passive voice, meaning someone means you to have me, typically in marriage. It's a bit old fashioned, since it goes back to days where a woman didn't make her own decisions about whom she married.

In the second case, there is something previously explained that was meant for you. In the case of my example, I always meant that the money was for you, not for the other John.

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I think you'd find very little support for "whom I go out with" today. As nohat says, such usage is "moribund". – FumbleFingers Mar 12 '14 at 15:41
@BobRodes I rephrased my answer to accompany yours. I think you are spot on with this usage; I had not thought of using it in that context. I'd say this answer is closer to being correct than mine. – Gaʀʀʏ Mar 12 '14 at 16:01
@FumbleFingers: my ego just couldn't stand to be corrected, so I used whom even though I wanted to say who. And now look... LOL – BobRodes Mar 12 '14 at 17:53
@Garry: I rephrased my edit to accompany your rephrasing. :) – BobRodes Mar 12 '14 at 17:54
@Bob: Hoist by your own petard (with mischievous help from me and nohat! :) I do like nohat's link in his answer there though: "[whom] is a made-up word used to trick students." – FumbleFingers Mar 12 '14 at 17:59

#1 is close, but not common in AmE. The correct sentence should be:

I am meant for you.


We are meant for each other.

If you want to include the word always, you could rephrase the sentence:

I will always be yours.

I am always here for you.

#2 is grammatically incorrect because you are missing the verb "to be"

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I you want to include always, perhaps and always will be (or and always have been) – Ben Voigt Mar 12 '14 at 19:33

For OP's intended sense here - "Fate (or my/our parents) have decreed that I was and always will be promised to you" - it is indeed necessary to include the auxiliary verb "to be".

But using present tense is at the very least "odd" - consider these results from Google Books...

"I am always meant for you" - no results
"I was always meant for you" - 8 results
...or for the more general case...
"I am meant for you" - 99 results
"I was meant for you" - 18,400 results

This is because present tense am tends to "jar" with past tense meant. You can really only get away with this in contexts where you're deliberately seeking to emphasise the "current moment" at time of speaking (i.e. - "I have just realised that I am meant for you") - but even that doesn't work if you include always.

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It is a bit awkward, true. I am always intended for you is perhaps less so, simply because intended is the usual word. I would say that the context would have to be that there was a series of surrounding events that raised doubt as to the intention. – BobRodes Mar 12 '14 at 18:02
@BobRodes: There's no evidence to support the idea that "intended is the usual word" in this context. Quite the opposite, in fact - currently, Google Books claims only 6,890 hits for I was meant for you, rather than the 18,400 it said last year. But it doesn't have any hits for I was intended for you. I think you're conflating this with the (now rather dated, poetic) usage He is my intended (the one I intend to marry). – FumbleFingers Dec 15 '15 at 16:07

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