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I came across " Never have I been so glad to see anyone in my life.".

Is " Never have I been so glad" is the same meaning as "I have been so glad"? How can I use the phrase " Never have I"?

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Related, about 'negative inversion': Under no circumstances will Twitter be liable in any way for any Content – CowperKettle Mar 20 at 18:16
    
This grammar subject is called inversion and quite broad actually. Hope this helps perfect-english-grammar.com/inversion.html – Mrt Mar 20 at 18:30
up vote 4 down vote accepted

The meaning is:

I have never been so glad to see anyone in my life.

We invert the order of the subject (I) and the auxiliary verb (have) to make the sentence more emphatic.

The speaker is very glad to see someone.

Why 'never'? Hmm.. Let's put it thus:

Event X = "I was as glad to see someone in my life as I am glad to see you". How often has event X occured to me? Zero times.

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Thank you for your answer. The person is glad to see someone, isn't it? – Yuuichi Tam Mar 20 at 17:40
    
@YuuichiTam - yes. – CowperKettle Mar 20 at 17:41
1  
Thank you for your helpful answer. – Yuuichi Tam Mar 20 at 17:55

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