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May 27, 2017 at 15:17 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Apr 13, 2017 at 22:34 answer added user3169 timeline score: 0
Apr 13, 2017 at 19:28 comment added Mohd Zulkanien Sarbini It's understood differently. But the definite article is more likely in that context. You should post a new question about that, it cannot be answered in comment.
Apr 13, 2017 at 19:20 comment added Brock 'We use the definite article in front of a noun when we believe 'readers' know exactly what we are referring to'. Vs 'We use the definite article in front of a noun when we believe the 'reader' knows exactly what we are referring to'. Vs 'We use the definite article in front of a noun when we believe 'a reader' knows exactly what we are referring to'. Vs 'We use the definite article in front of 'nouns' when we believe 'the reader' knows exactly what we are referring to. Do all mean the same or they mean differently ?
Apr 13, 2017 at 18:47 comment added Mohd Zulkanien Sarbini But this is an indefinite article :)
Apr 13, 2017 at 18:46 comment added Brock I looked up the definition of definite article and it reads like this - "We use the definite article in front of a noun when we believe the reader knows exactly what we are referring to". This is also a sentence which expresses generality so can we use 'readers' instead of 'reader' to mean the same ?
Apr 13, 2017 at 18:36 comment added Mohd Zulkanien Sarbini 2. and 3. refer to a man and a women in general, respectively. They have the sense of "any", "any woman", "any man".
Apr 13, 2017 at 18:19 answer added Adam Blomeke timeline score: 1
Apr 13, 2017 at 18:04 history asked Brock CC BY-SA 3.0