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Sep 21, 2014 at 21:38 comment added supercat I don't think agressive driving implies an intention to cause harm, but rather an intention to assert dominance. A driver might be reckless without being aggressive if he sets the cruise control and then proceeds to give himself a pedicure. A driver might be aggressive without being reckless if he harasses other drivers until they yield the right of way to him, but avoids ever getting so close as to pose a danger to himself or the other motorist.
Sep 9, 2014 at 4:54 comment added Egghead99 Actually, aggressive driving does not have to have intent or goal to cause harm. Your answer seems to suggest that aggressive driving is more severe than reckless driving, since it has the goal of harm. However, neither of your sources define aggressive driving with the words "goal or intent to harm". Further, since your second source explicitly states that aggressive driving is less severe than reckless driving, it would follow that there is even less intent to harm in aggressive driving than there is in reckless driving.
Feb 10, 2013 at 16:21 history edited Renan CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 10, 2013 at 14:11 history answered Renan CC BY-SA 3.0