Timeline for Why is it wrong to use a bare infinitive after "is"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| Aug 31, 2017 at 13:25 | comment | added | Gary Botnovcan | A statement with nothing to mark the mode is implicitly indicative. Modal "do" is explicitly indicative. It marks something that, well, would have been that way anyway. White paint on a while wall isn't "dummy" paint. It's just paint that's hard to see. Grant "do" its modal function and you'll discover you need only the one explanation for how questions are formed. Grant "do" its normal denotation even in its modal role and you'll discover you can explain why it doesn't always play well with "to be". BTW, I don't often care whether the clause has feelings. I care how it operates. | |
| Aug 31, 2017 at 3:17 | comment | added | Mohd Zulkanien Sarbini | TL:DR—but I catch a glimpse of the third part. 'Do' is not a modal auxiliary; it's just a dummy verb that fulfils the syntactic function as an operator. Btw, I think it should be 'mood'. | |
| Aug 31, 2017 at 1:57 | history | answered | Gary Botnovcan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |