Timeline for 'Are' vs. 'Have been' difference in meaning
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 17, 2013 at 12:57 | comment | added | Damkerng T. | @StoneyB Thank you very much. That cleared my doubt perfectly. | |
| Dec 17, 2013 at 12:51 | comment | added | StoneyB on hiatus | @DamkerngT. The have suffered is a response to Lady Sibyl's inquiry, "You must have suffered...?" I'd point it differently: "I have suffered, madam--principally from thirst, until I found, &c" | |
| Dec 17, 2013 at 12:28 | history | edited | Damkerng T. | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 5 characters in body
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| Dec 17, 2013 at 12:25 | comment | added | Damkerng T. | @StoneyB Using were not able to sounds much better. However, I still doubt if such a use of have not been able to is prohibited. I copied such a usage from One-act play: Youth by Thornton Wilder: Gulliver: I have suffered, madam, principally from thirst, until I found this spring here... I wonder if that is an error too. | |
| Dec 17, 2013 at 12:08 | comment | added | StoneyB on hiatus | Your second sentence is unacceptable: have not been able has present reference and cannot be qualified by a past terminus. You have to say We were not able to ... until we found ... | |
| Dec 17, 2013 at 10:45 | comment | added | J.R.♦ | I agree with the overall thrust of your answer, but it's worth noting that the agreement could be an interim agreement. But even in that case, the wording could be greatly improved: We have reached an [interim] agreement until we find a [long-term] peaceful solution. | |
| Dec 17, 2013 at 10:05 | history | answered | Damkerng T. | CC BY-SA 3.0 |