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Timeline for Agnostic vs Atheist

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

10 events
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Jan 17, 2018 at 15:08 comment added Richard Gomes @Accumulation: Atheists do not say "I don't believe that God exists.". Atheists say "I don't have any evidence of existence of deities and, in this case, the default position points to no existence.". Yeah... look to be the same, but it's not. Read other answers and other discussions and it will become clear to you.
Dec 31, 2017 at 19:15 comment added jamesqf @Nemgathos: But anti-Judaism doesn't really work, either, because there are ethnic Jews who are either agnostic or atheist (or perhaps converts to other religions), who are still the targets of antisemitism.
Dec 30, 2017 at 23:59 comment added Acccumulation @RichardGomes No, atheism refers to belief, not evidence.
Dec 30, 2017 at 19:29 comment added Nemgathos @KonradRudolph I know that meanings change over time. But I don’t think that it is wrong to point out the etymological aspect as well. By looking at the etymology, one can understand what a certain word actually meant at the beginning. And, thus, people shall become more aware of their usage of certain words.
Dec 30, 2017 at 19:26 comment added Nemgathos @RichardGomes I think it might be better if you edit the answer because I might overlook somethink. You can easily do this by clicking on edit. Your edit has then to be per reviewed and you will earn some extra reputation points if your edit will be accepted.
Dec 30, 2017 at 15:59 comment added Richard Gomes @Nemgathos: You answer is great and possibly the most useful one for all levels of readers, except by the abbreviation you've employed here which is based on beliefs instead of evidences: "Atheism means that I do not believe that there is a God.". I suggest you replace by: "Atheism means that I do not have any evidence which could corroborate the claim that there is a God."
Dec 30, 2017 at 9:11 comment added Konrad Rudolph Ah. But now you're confusing semantics and etymology. They're not the same. Meanings change.
Dec 30, 2017 at 0:56 comment added Nemgathos It is widely used that way, I know. But by taking a closer look at the meaning of the words, one should clearly realise that the usage of these words is actually nonsense. Another example for this would be the word “anti-Semitism”. Arabs are also Semites – but it does not refer to them. “Anti-Judaism” would actually describe what the word “anti-Semitism” often describes.
Dec 29, 2017 at 23:35 comment added Konrad Rudolph Personally I prefer the two-dimensional division into quadrants but to label the one-dimensional distinction as “incorrect” is clearly wrong: this is how many native speakers understand these terxms. It’s therefore not incorrect. At most it’s imprecise and/or unhelpful.
Dec 29, 2017 at 21:54 history answered Nemgathos CC BY-SA 3.0