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Timeline for passive to active voice using modal

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Nov 20, 2019 at 20:50 comment added Lambie Why are you mentioning modal verbs??
Nov 20, 2019 at 19:23 vote accept Ritwik Bhattacharyya
Nov 19, 2019 at 4:33 answer added Jeff Morrow timeline score: 1
Nov 19, 2019 at 4:05 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Jul 9, 2019 at 14:01 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Mar 10, 2019 at 5:01 comment added user17814 I think the OP's question are all active, am I wrong here?
Mar 10, 2019 at 4:06 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Jun 23, 2018 at 15:30 answer added Jason Bassford timeline score: 1
Jun 23, 2018 at 14:10 comment added Maciej Stachowski I'd also add "A sane man would not utter this word" to the list of possibly correct interpretations, with an implication that uttering such a word means you're not a sane man in the first place.
Jun 23, 2018 at 12:09 comment added Mohd Zulkanien Sarbini There isn't any rule for that. Both sentences are correct, but they don't bear the same meaning. The first one can mean "A sane man is not allowed to/not able to utter this word". The second can mean "A sane man refuses to utter this word".
Jun 23, 2018 at 11:34 history asked Ritwik Bhattacharyya CC BY-SA 4.0