Timeline for Difference between 'he is gone out' and 'he has gone out'?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Mar 14, 2019 at 4:30 | vote | accept | Imtango30 | ||
Mar 13, 2019 at 19:42 | comment | added | Weather Vane | @SamBC I didn't give any reason but intended that to be included: "lost his mind" could be a temporary or permanent issue, or even in a day-dream. | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 19:42 | comment | added | SamBC | @MichaelHarvey: "he is gone" still gets regular use. A sort of specific holdover, I guess. Or a confusion due to it having the same contraction. It is also used specifically for people dying, of course. | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 19:40 | comment | added | SamBC | @WeatherVane: or that he is heavily under the influence of mind-altering substances... | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 19:39 | comment | added | Michael Harvey | He is gone; he is come. I use them from time to time. I would call these a bit old-fashioned rather than "archaic". | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 18:04 | comment | added | Weather Vane | "He is gone" can mean that he is "out of his mind". | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 18:00 | comment | added | Colin Fine | He is gone out is archaic. You will find many examples of it in Early Modern English texts, such as the King James Bible. Anybody who uses it today is being deliberately archaic. | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 17:57 | comment | added | Imtango30 | @Lorel C but the meaning of both are same. Then how would I know which one should I choose? | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 17:56 | answer | added | SamBC | timeline score: 3 | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 17:55 | comment | added | Lorel C. | We don't normally say "He is gone out." in English. The helping verb is "have"/"has". | |
Mar 13, 2019 at 17:53 | history | asked | Imtango30 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |