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Aug 22, 2019 at 1:04 comment added Jason Bassford No, it shouldn't be either version. Unless you know something that hasn't been explained in the question. They are both grammatical. And since no intended meaning has been expressed, the statement about them having different meanings is mostly irrelevant,.
Aug 21, 2019 at 22:38 comment added Prof-Wiz Since you are native speaker,what about "would have" ? : "If you have a good reputation, publishers will take a chance on projects they would turn down from an unknown"(instead of would have turned down).Is there any subtle change in meaning ?
Aug 21, 2019 at 16:40 review First posts
Aug 21, 2019 at 23:32
Aug 21, 2019 at 16:37 history answered ringsofocziom CC BY-SA 4.0