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Sep 24, 2015 at 12:55 history edited Kinzle B CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 166 characters in body; edited tags
Oct 28, 2014 at 2:10 vote accept Kinzle B
Oct 27, 2014 at 13:55 history edited Kinzle B CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 20 characters in body; edited tags
May 28, 2014 at 12:06 history edited CoolHandLouis CC BY-SA 3.0
Provided footnote reference to "PEU"
May 1, 2014 at 12:32 comment added Kinzle B Quite so, I think I have figured it out. Thx! @Fantasier
May 1, 2014 at 12:26 comment added user1513 Well, I think it depends. From my understandings, it may be a real perfect, or it may not. May have can be used to talk about possibility in the past. Whether it's a real perfect or not relies entirely on the meaning it conveys. Is the speaker talking about the possibility of the present state based on something that locates in time before (the meaning of 'real perfect'), or is he or she simply saying what possibly happened in the past? If it's the former, then it's a real perfect; if it's the latter, then it's not a real perfect.
May 1, 2014 at 11:24 comment added Kinzle B What about "may have done.."? It's also deployed to indicate possibility in the past and it is indeed a modal perfect construction. (ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13255/… might help) @Fantasier
May 1, 2014 at 11:14 history edited Kinzle B CC BY-SA 3.0
added 32 characters in body
May 1, 2014 at 10:59 history edited Kinzle B CC BY-SA 3.0
added 33 characters in body; edited title
Apr 27, 2014 at 18:09 answer added CoolHandLouis timeline score: 3
Apr 27, 2014 at 17:09 comment added user1513 Since could + infinitive w/o to is usually used to indicate possibility in the present, could have + past participle is deployed to indicate possibility in the past. So I think the first one is not 'real perfect' (ell.stackexchange.com/a/6313/1513 might help) However, I'm not sure about the rest.
Apr 27, 2014 at 16:54 history asked Kinzle B CC BY-SA 3.0