Timeline for Which preposition do I use after the verb "negotiate"
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
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Oct 13, 2019 at 14:33 | history | edited | Lambie | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 4 characters in body
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Oct 12, 2019 at 13:56 | comment | added | Lambie | The better question is: Why is the difference between "negotiate something" AND "negotiate for something". Right? You could have checked more dictionaries first and showed us that you had. | |
Oct 12, 2019 at 13:52 | comment | added | Dmytro O'Hope | Just wanted to know your opinion | |
Oct 12, 2019 at 13:50 | comment | added | Lambie | If something is in an authoritative dictionary like an Oxford Dictionary, there is no need to ask about it. | |
Oct 11, 2019 at 20:17 | comment | added | Dmytro O'Hope | But what about this one from the same dictionary "We have been negotiating for more pay",? | |
Oct 11, 2019 at 20:13 | comment | added | Lambie | part of or a part of, but not: make this as part of, you miscopied. | |
Oct 11, 2019 at 20:02 | comment | added | Lambie | @DmytroO'Hope Of course it isn't wrong. It's also not a verb: it's a gerund [noun]. |make this part of their bargaining|, right? Anyway, that is a noun. Learning English is tough. learning=noun | |
Oct 11, 2019 at 19:19 | comment | added | Dmytro O'Hope | ‘The trade unions should make this as part of their bargaining when negotiating for conditions of service with employers.’ This example is from the Oxford Dictionary. Is this sentence wrong? | |
Oct 11, 2019 at 17:32 | history | answered | Lambie | CC BY-SA 4.0 |