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May 25, 2022 at 12:44 comment added EllieK @Kirt - In addition to considering archaic biblical definitions, doth ye also speake in the Olde English of King James? Lest ye encounter another speaker? Olde English is just another dialect. Just as important as any other.
May 24, 2022 at 20:45 comment added Andy @mbomb007 Given that the Bible will could have used many prophetic future tenses I'm not sure it's an exhaustive compendium.
May 24, 2022 at 19:03 comment added mbomb007 @Kirt I might be wrong, but I think TonyK meant that its never used in that tense in the Bible itself.
May 24, 2022 at 14:50 comment added Kirt @TonyK "Never" is a strong claim. Cf., "As of this writing, to quote the Bible, we have been knowing each other for twelve years as a couple, and we continually reach new levels of showing each other what love is." in What's wrong with America
May 24, 2022 at 14:36 comment added Kirt @Barmar It is certainly almost never used, which is why I say it is extremely unlikely to be the meaning the exam intended. I am simply pointing out that it is a grammatically correct idiomatic construction, since the other answers say that it is not.
May 24, 2022 at 14:15 comment added Barmar This sense is also considered archaic, almost never used except in the Bible unless you add the "in the biblical sense" qualifier.
May 24, 2022 at 10:54 comment added TonyK No, that doesn't work at all. "We have been knowing each other ever since": even in the Biblical sense, "know" is never used in the (present or past or past perfect) continuous.
May 24, 2022 at 7:09 history answered Kirt CC BY-SA 4.0