Timeline for In the last phrase "we have our inhibitions eroded.", the verb have is causative?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 23, 2022 at 17:17 | comment | added | gomadeng | @Fumble I like the details of your explanations regardless of what they are or if they are right. | |
| Jun 23, 2022 at 14:29 | answer | added | PPH | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jun 23, 2022 at 11:56 | comment | added | FumbleFingers | ...,where the more "explicitly causative" phrasing: the media showing that our favorite characters behaving aggressively results in them getting what they want erodes our inhibitions (with gerund/noun showing being the "causative agent" subject) is syntactically fine - it's just a bit clumsy because the entire subject noun phrase (everything before erodes) is too complex for the context. | |
| Jun 23, 2022 at 11:49 | comment | added | FumbleFingers | I think the cited example is "unnatural" phrasing anyway. I doubt it came from a native Anglophone - it looks like a peculiar example specifically designed to home in on the distinction between passive and causative verb usages, but all it does for me is prove that those two categories aren't always syntactically useful. The natural phrasing for the context is [When blah blah] ... our inhibitions are eroded. | |
| Jun 23, 2022 at 7:57 | comment | added | PPH | Yes, it is causative. | |
| Jun 23, 2022 at 5:16 | history | asked | gomadeng | CC BY-SA 4.0 |