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Sep 28, 2022 at 20:19 comment added dan04 Indeed. It meant "I have (=possess) the book, which I have written." The construction was later generalized to allow, e.g., "I have lost the book", in which "have" doesn't indicate posession.
Sep 28, 2022 at 16:39 comment added Colin Fine It has been argued that this construction is actually the origin of the perfect construction in English and other languages: I have the book written, exactly like gotube's examples -> I have written the book, with my explicit agency.
Sep 28, 2022 at 14:33 history answered gotube CC BY-SA 4.0