Timeline for "Both the local authority and <myself> <me> <I> have gone to the minister." — Do all these pronouns work here?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
14 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jan 5 at 10:53 | comment | added | TimR | @Lovii: **You and me" or "her and me", "me and her", etc, in subject role (meaning "the two of us") will be heard in situations where the speaker's idiolect doesn't include a more formal mode of expression, and where a more adept speaker with informal and formal modes in their idiolect engages in "code-switching". And "we will" would be contracted: "Atfer you and me finish eating, we'll go back to my place and watch a movie. How's that sound?" | |
Jan 5 at 9:49 | history | edited | Loviii | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 139 characters in body
|
Jan 5 at 5:23 | comment | added | Loviii | @TimR forum.wordreference.com: "After you and <I> <me> finish eating, we will go home". Based on your explanation, we can use "me" here because the sentence sounds rather informal. Am I right? | |
Jan 4 at 11:36 | comment | added | FumbleFingers | As I said, some of your examples are incorrect (because you can't say "Me has gone"). Several others have made the same point, including the fact that although it's "incorrect", many people use me in your example context (or at least, similar but less "formal" utterances), even though they wouldn't dream of using it in my example in this actual comment. | |
Jan 4 at 7:50 | comment | added | user207421 | The procedure here is simply to remove the other subject from the sentence and then see what you have to write when it's just yourself. In this case it would be "I/me/myself have gone ...", of which only one is correct. | |
Jan 4 at 6:55 | comment | added | Loviii | @FumbleFingers iii) What do you mean by "odd-numbered examples"? Sounds like you saw the figures first time. | |
Jan 3 at 16:29 | comment | added | Lambie | [tip: "Is this" or "Is that" correct is more idiomatic sounding than "is it" correct] You cite the pages of CGEL, but what does it say about those utterances? | |
Jan 3 at 15:51 | answer | added | Barmar | timeline score: 9 | |
Jan 3 at 15:10 | history | became hot network question | |||
Jan 3 at 11:03 | comment | added | TimR | "... and me" is colloquial, and absolutely grammatical in informal contexts ("Mary and me are going for a swim") so it's odd to see it used in a context that seems formal ("local authority"). Teachers have been trying to browbeat native speakers about it for a couple of centuries. | |
Jan 3 at 4:17 | comment | added | Loviii | @FumbleFingers Did I understand you correctly?: i) Both sentences with "me" (#2 and #5) are incorrect but natural in informal speech. ii) If we replace "both the local authority and myself" with "both myself and the local authority" here, the sentence remains correct. | |
Jan 3 at 4:10 | history | edited | Loviii | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 71 characters in body
|
Jan 3 at 4:07 | comment | added | FumbleFingers | Technically speaking, your odd-numbered examples are incorrect (because you can't say Me has gone to him). But lots of people ignore that in relaxed conversational contexts. We normally use the reflexive pronoun (myself) in these contexts (primarily for emphasis), but there's nothing wrong with plain I. | |
Jan 3 at 4:02 | history | asked | Loviii | CC BY-SA 4.0 |