Timeline for When does "the share of" equal "the percentage of"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 4 at 8:15 | comment | added | gotube♦ | @anIELTSlearner If you're talking about FF's comment, the question he's talking about doesn't use "proportion" or some other word first. I can only speculate that if he saw that NYT example that he'd agree it was natural and correct. It could also be that in BrE "share" cannot be used as I've described in my answer, but that would surprise me. | |
| May 4 at 7:57 | comment | added | An IELTS Learner | Thanks. Could you please have a look at the link I commented above to see why the other user found that "the share of" was incorrect in that case? | |
| May 4 at 7:54 | comment | added | gotube♦ | @anIELTSlearner "no matter what" is a strong phrase, but yes, I think that should work. | |
| May 4 at 7:49 | comment | added | An IELTS Learner | So to sum up, if there are several groups of things/people that comprise the entirety of something, I can first say "the proportion of [a certain group]" and then later change it to "the share of [a certain group]", no matter what type of things/people they are? | |
| May 4 at 7:29 | history | answered | gotube♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |