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(1) I did not see him yesterday.

 

(2) I had not seen him yesterday.

Do they both mean exactly the same thing? Should (1) be chosen (as it almost always is, except for third conditionals) because it is simpler, in a sense?

EDIT: what I think the sentences mean is "at no point in time in yesterday did I see him". Am I wrong?

(1) I did not see him yesterday.

 

(2) I had not seen him yesterday.

Do they both mean exactly the same thing? Should (1) be chosen (as it almost always is, except for third conditionals) because it is simpler, in a sense?

EDIT: what I think the sentences mean is "at no point in time in yesterday did I see him". Am I wrong?

(1) I did not see him yesterday.

(2) I had not seen him yesterday.

Do they both mean exactly the same thing? Should (1) be chosen (as it almost always is, except for third conditionals) because it is simpler, in a sense?

EDIT: what I think the sentences mean is "at no point in time in yesterday did I see him". Am I wrong?

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user132181
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(1) I did not see him yesterday.

(2) I had not seen him yesterday.

Do they both mean exactly the same thing? Should (1) be chosen (as it almost always is, except for third conditionals) because it is simpler, in a sense?

EDIT: what I think the sentences mean is "at no point in time in yesterday did I see him". Am I wrong?

(1) I did not see him yesterday.

(2) I had not seen him yesterday.

Do they both mean exactly the same thing? Should (1) be chosen (as it almost always is, except for third conditionals) because it is simpler, in a sense?

(1) I did not see him yesterday.

(2) I had not seen him yesterday.

Do they both mean exactly the same thing? Should (1) be chosen (as it almost always is, except for third conditionals) because it is simpler, in a sense?

EDIT: what I think the sentences mean is "at no point in time in yesterday did I see him". Am I wrong?

Source Link
user132181
  • 1.6k
  • 2
  • 18
  • 25

"I did not see him yesterday" vs. "I had not seen him yesterday"

(1) I did not see him yesterday.

(2) I had not seen him yesterday.

Do they both mean exactly the same thing? Should (1) be chosen (as it almost always is, except for third conditionals) because it is simpler, in a sense?