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I am confused using below mentioned sentences. Help me choosing the proper one.

At 4 pm, I got a call for someone who already left the office; if I have to reply in this situation, which one is the correct way?

He left for the day (he is not in office at 4:00 pm).
He has left for the day (he left office at 3:00 pm).
He is left for the day (he is not in office at 4:00 pm).

Please help.

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Though all these mean the same that he has left the office, there's subtle difference.

He left for the day - You are not specific at what time he left.
He has left for the day - You mean he left some time ago as you mentioned at 3 pm.
He is left for the day - It would mean that he is a kind of 'work' and is left (alone?) for the whole day!

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    While I can construct a situation where "he is left for the day" would be valid and meaningful, it would take some doing. It certainly does not mean the same thing as the other two and is not merely a "subtle" difference. In ordinary usage it is simply incorrect.
    – Hellion
    Commented Jan 2, 2014 at 18:09
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    "He is left for the day" is absolutely incorrect, and meaningless.
    – Len has moved to Codidact
    Commented Sep 9, 2019 at 5:00

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