The legal terminology may differ from country to country, but in the UK and most places that I'm aware of, in divorce law there is a petitioner (the one who asks the court for a divorce) and a respondent (the other party in the divorce). Historically, the petitioner is the one who has grounds for requesting the divorce (adultery, unreasonable behaviour, willful nonsupport etc). For example, if a husband cheats on his wife and there is no reconciliation, the wife would divorce her husband on the grounds of his adultery. It is not possible (in the UK at least) for a person to initiate divorce on the grounds of their own adultery. Divorce law is changing in some places - the UK is moving to allow 'no fault' divorces which would allow divorces where both parties agree it is nobody's 'fault'. But where parties don't agree to a divorce there would still need to be a petitioner and a respondent.
So, when someone says, for example, "she divorced her husband" it does sound like the woman was the petitioner with a complaint against her husband, because when 'divorced' is used as a verb it is done by someone to someone else.
Expressions like "they got divorced" or "they got a divorce" don't imply any fault, but persons used to hearing that someone was at fault may consider them to be ambiguous rather than imply there was nobody considered at fault.
Your example of "she got divorced from him" isn't really clear as to who, if anyone, initiated the divorce. At the end of the procedure, both parties are 'divorced' and arguably they both got divorced, too. I would say this is either ambiguous or the matter of who divorced who is just irrelevant to what is being said.
