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The following sentence is from a conversation on TV, where a couple who has made decisions to save their marriage, and listed their their decisions on a contract, like number one we will do this, number 2 we will not do that, etc. And the TV presenters asks the wife if he has obeyed each article on the contract. They are now on number 3 and 4:

TV presenter: Does he live up to number three?

Wife: Number three is his favorite he loves to fight in public.

TV presenter: Okay so he gets a double. We'll call timeout if it escalates to a damaging level.

Wife: I've yet to ever seen him call a time out Dr. Phil - A blended family (see:18:39-18:45)

The structure of the last sentence caught my attention. I know there is a structure "I have yet to do something" meaning "I have not done it yet, but I will probably do it". However, the woman's sentence starts the same but continues differently. She says ".... yet to ever SEEN...", which looks like a present perfect tense.

So, I wonder, is it simply a slip of tongue or is there such a usage, too?

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    There is no such usage. Maybe she 'changed course' mid-sentence, as people occasionally do - started to say I have yet to see him and switched to I have never seen him. Commented Nov 20 at 16:48
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    "I've yet to ever seen him call a time out," is wrong. It could be misreported speech, or a local dialect, but it is not colloquial English I've heard. Commented Nov 20 at 16:49
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    When people are talking casually in your native language, do they always use perfect grammar?
    – Barmar
    Commented Nov 20 at 18:10
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    @Barmar, no they don't, but learners of any language would naturally want to ask about it, because they would want to make sure that this was not another one of those things not covered in lessons, but actually exists in the language you learn. I have learnt many new things simply by asking about anything that seemed unusual. If I had not asked about them, I would not have learnt them.
    – Yunus
    Commented Nov 20 at 19:13

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Absolutely not a common usage, even if we include casual speech or particular dialects.

My guess is that in her (unconscious) mental model of the sentence, she had "never" in place of "yet to ever". Either she swapped out "never" in favour of "yet to ever" without recasting the rest of the anticipated sentence (a common source of production errors), or she actually analyzes "yet to ever" as a unit with the same syntactic status as "never" (odd, but certainly not impossible as the type of thing a person might somehow acquire and have in their idiolect).

With "never", the syntax makes perfect sense:

I've never seen him call a time out.

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