I have a clearer understanding on to-infinitives, as in the following sentences:

I allowed her to go to the party.
I got him to do his homework.

But I still need to be clear on a similar structure, on the bare-infinitives, as I have seen them called, as in these sentences:

I let her go to the party.
I made him do his homework.

No 'to' before the infinitive but, aside from that, am I saying exactly the same thing with or without 'to'? Just to be certain that some verbs will take 'to' and some will not but the way to interpret the sentence remains the same

If so, are there any special reasons 'to' is sometimes left out?

  • There are several ways or angles to look at this issue (or these alternatives). Yours (infinitives with and without to) is arguably among the most common in grammar books (e.g., English Grammar Today). In reality, you will find that there are more alternatives than the two (what about the -ing form, for example), and at some point in learning English, you'll find yourself using them almost always intuitively, without having to think of all possible alternatives. – Damkerng T. Aug 21 '16 at 7:48
  • As you say, some verbs want a bare infinitive and some want a to-infinitive. But the meaning is not changed by the to marker. – Tᴚoɯɐuo Aug 21 '16 at 13:09

Some verbs of perception (feel, hear, notice, observe, overhear, see, watch) can be followed by an object and a bare infinitive to express a completed action.

He watched them climb the hill.

We also use a bare infinitive after let, have and make

Let me tell you the truth. I had/made my little brother clean his room.

You can use either a to-infinitive or a bare infinitive after help in the same structure.

He helped them (to) pack.

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