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I want to convey that I didn't speak English in the last two years and I'm not speaking English now.

I haven't spoken English for two years.

I haven't been speaking English for two years.

In this case, which is proper?

  • @AlanCarmack I wonder if their negative form work the same. – Ming Wang Aug 27 '16 at 5:38
  • I removed your second question, as it has no relevance to the first. Please ask one question at a time. – M.A.R. Aug 27 '16 at 7:25
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Both sentences imply that now you are speaking English,

I haven't spoken English for two years, (but I am now).

I haven't been speaking English for two years, (but I am now).

What you should say is;

I haven't spoken English for two years, I still don't.

or

I haven't been speaking English for two years, I still don't

| improve this answer | |
  • Does the sentence "I have been speaking English for 2 years" imply that I still speak English now? – Ming Wang Aug 27 '16 at 6:17
  • yes it does. ** – Sam Harrington Aug 27 '16 at 6:19
  • ell.stackexchange.com/questions/78339/… This explains why it implies that much better than I can @MingWang – Sam Harrington Aug 27 '16 at 6:20
  • I don't understand why both "haven't been speaking English" and "have been speaking English" imply that I'm speaking English now. – Ming Wang Aug 27 '16 at 6:25
  • No, 'haven't been speaking English,' implies that you still DO NOT, but 'have been speaking English,' implies that you still DO. – Sam Harrington Aug 27 '16 at 6:28

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