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While typing a question, I became unsure of which form to use for a verb.

That would be the first time a morph has disappeared (except for Sario Rips and allergies, neither of which apply here.)

Should it be "neither of which applies"?

Logic tells me it should be "apply", because it's plural (two objects, "Sario Rips" and "allergies".)

But, instinctively, I feel that "applies" sounds better.

Which one is correct?

Would it matter what the verb was? So for example, if the answer is that it should be "applies", should then any verb be in single form in this sentence? (Like "Neither of which does", "Neither of which has", etc.)

  • I would almost always use a singular verb but see See Which is correct, "neither is" or "neither are"? for some historical and the other uses of the plural. – Alan Carmack Sep 1 '16 at 14:04
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    Your logic serves you well. Singular agreement is usual, since "neither" cannot function as determiner to plural nouns. In your example "neither" is a 'fused' determiner-head, but with non-fused "neither", the requirement for singular agreement becomes clearer. Consider the impossibility of *"Neither objections were valid". See what I mean? – BillJ Sep 1 '16 at 14:21
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'Neither' is singular, so it requires a singular verb form (applies):

... (except for Sario Rips and allergies, neither of which applies here)

If you had used 'BOTH of which...', 'both' is plural, and would use the plural form 'apply':

... (except for Sario Rips and allergies, both of which apply here)

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As the Oxford Learner's Dictionary says in its grammar point:

Neither of and either of are followed by a plural noun or pronoun and a singular or plural verb. A plural verb is more informal: Neither of my parents speaks/​speak a foreign language.

In other words, although native speakers do sometimes use a plural verb after neither of, the use of a singular verb is still the expected form in formal contexts, because that is the form taught in schools. And on any test of English as a foreign language, use the singular verb.

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