0

When I want to express he is sensible or insightful, can I say "he has a good eye." or "he has good eyes"?

  • 2
    If you see should see the "insufficient text" warning again, please consider adding a couple of example sentences rather than an unnecessary sentence about unnecessary text. – P. E. Dant Reinstate Monica Sep 19 '16 at 2:35
0

Both of your phrases are correct but have different meanings.

Without any other context, your phrases literally mean

he has a good eye
he has one good eye

he has good eyes
both his eyes are good

Neither really express sensibility nor insightfulness which might be expressed as

he has a good understanding of
he has a good grasp of

Having an eye for something is to be able to appreciate the visual aesthetics of something

he has a good eye for design layout
he has a good eye for landscape painting
he has a good eye for catching continuity flaws in movies

this is usually shortened to

he has an eye for design layout

| improve this answer | |
1

The idiom is X has a good eye for Y, but the "for" is really important here as well as "good eye".

Saying X has good eyes literally means that X's eyes are good.

If you say "X has good eyes for Y" it will likely be understood as "X has a good eye for Y", though.

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.