I encounter a sentence as follows:
The results were much like those of James Bernoulli’s Art of Conjecture (1713), developed analytically by Laplace in the late 18th century; but P´olya thought the resemblance to be only qualitative.
I wonder if the
to be in black can be replaced by "would be" or as @V.V. noted by "was"? Since I have never studied such a grammar rule(to be = was/is = would/will be), could anyone please help explain a bit?