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What's the difference in meaning of the following sentences:

  1. Since leaving school, he has had three jobs

  2. Since he has left school, he has had three jobs.

  3. Since he left school, he has had three jobs.

Do they mean the same thing, but they are different in terms of sentence structure?

1 Answer 1

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They mean the same thing, but it may surprise you that #1 is better stylistically.

Note that #2 repeats the subject (he), which is a redundancy, and the way you have written it it also repeats the present perfect construction (he has left, he has had).

Note that if you were really going to use #2 you should use simple past in the first clause: "Since he left school, he has had three jobs."

There's a problem with that as well, though: since can mean because, so the sentence could be interpreted as meaning that he has had three jobs precisely because he left school. That ambiguity is also avoided in example #1.

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