1

Here is one sentence from BBC World News:

No signals have come from the lander after it made the final descent.

I looked up the word after in LDOCE, it can be used in the present perfect tense, the past perfect tense. But I did not find any sentence like the mentioned one. And there is another one:

A Scottish boxer has died after being injured in a bout on Thursday.

  • I think you mean "No signals have come ...". – AdrianHHH Oct 20 '16 at 11:51
  • Sorry, a wrong spelling. It is "signal" – Emily Oct 20 '16 at 12:32
1

No signals have come from the lander after it made the final descent.

I would say the sentence from the BBC is not quite grammatical, because I understand "after it made the final descent" to refer to the period of time following its descent, which time is in the past; it does not extend to the present.

The word after in after it made does not function like an after operator in a data query language:

select * from employees where dateHired after 20120101.

which would include employees hired today.

The time phrases in a present perfect construction cannot exclude the present.

I would have written:

No signals have come from the lander since it made the final descent.

P.S. But if the speaker understands after to be perfectly synonymous with since, the BBC sentence will strike the speaker's ear as grammatical.

  • This sentence: A Scottish boxer has died after being injured in a bout on Thursday. Is it acceptable? – Emily Oct 20 '16 at 12:28
  • My ear understands "after being injured" differently than "after he was injured". The being-injured state extends to the present with the former, or at least does not exclude the present, and so, for me, the second sentence is not jarring in the way the first sentence was. – Tᴚoɯɐuo Oct 20 '16 at 12:35

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.