Please tell if this correct or incorrect and why. This is what I was taught but it sounds so awkward. "He has been eaten the apples."
He has been eaten the apples
Try: He has been eating the apples, or He has eaten the apples
It really depends on the intended meaning.
No, it is not. Assuming that "by" was omitted in the original sentence. That is the original sentence should have been:
He has been eaten by the apples.
It is a passive sentence which can be rewritten in an active one as:
The apples have eaten him
I am guessing the original sentence should be:
He has eaten the apples.
The passive of that sentence would be:
The apples have been eaten by him.
So the difference is in who is the agent or doer in the sentence and what is undergoing the action. In your original sentence, the agents are the apples and the undergoer is he. This is rather awkward unless it is a cartoon where inanimate objects have animate characteristics.
Purely grammatically, user2840286 might have had a point but reality trumps grammar. The only way you could possibly come close to "The apples have eaten him" would be in the Japanese saying about sake: “…the third cup drinks the man”
How likely is it that apples will eat your manhood, your humanity, your will to live, and leave you a hollow shell dependant on apples?
Technically 0_oVIRUNAo_0 said all there is to say
Pragmatically, curious-proofreader is equally right.
The “been and” guys are also correct but their worms infest a wholly different apple…