The sentence :
Among the biggest gainers since election day have been shares of Fannie Mae (OTCQB:FNMA) and Freddie Mac (OTCQB:FMCC) which are no strangers to large price swings themselves.
"Which are no strangers to large price swings themselves" is an attributive clause that modifies the noun phrase "shares of Fannie Mae (OTCQB:FNMA) and Freddie Mac (OTCQB:FMCC)".
I can't understand "which are no strangers to large price swings themselves".
Can I rewrite it as shares of F&F are no strangers to large price swings themselves?
It is hard for me to understand that "shares of F&F are no strangers to large price swings themselves".
*F&F is abbreviation of "Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac".
I had new discovery in the http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/be-no-stranger-to-sth
It is said that "no stranger to" is an idiom meaning "to be familiar with a particular experience or activity".
F&F are high volatility stocks from the historical data, it would rise 40% in one single day and down 50% in one single day too,it is speculation to buy the common stocks of F&F,so can we say this?
"shares of F&F are no strangers to large price swings"
Is that the same as saying "shares of F&F are familiar with high volatility"?