I was reading an article on "Pidgin English" a couple of days ago. It started like this:
" There is a story of a British consul in China who was asked to marry a young Danish sailor and a Chinese girl - no one of the three knowing the other languages. ..."
This very beginning part of the article left a question in my mind. Here's the question:
Is " ... knowing the other languages" an adjectival participle clause which modifies the noun "three" or even possibly the whole noun phrase " no one of the three"? (I don't really think that it can be a relative clause.) And IF I am on the right track, which one of the following re-written forms is correct? Why?
- No one of the three knew the other languages Or
- No one of the three knows the other languages.