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While studying for a grammar exam (I'm a foreigner speaker) one example said "she asked me to not phone" instead of the usual order "she asked me not to phone". The only thing that came to my mind is that being "ask to" a phrasal we can't avoid the "to" after the pronoun so we don't write a second "to" to avoid cacophony because in fact we should write "she asked me to not to phone". Am I right? Can anyone elaborate? Thank you in advance

migrated from english.stackexchange.com Dec 20 '16 at 21:46

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  • Possible duplicate: Are split infinitives grammatically incorrect, or are they valid constructs?. – Rathony Dec 19 '16 at 20:40
  • What was the context? Was the first version presented as correct? It's odd to be. – Azor Ahai Dec 19 '16 at 22:53
  • What are you saying about «a second “to”»? – Scott Dec 20 '16 at 21:46
  • The versions with a single to are fine; the last with "to not to" isn't. The word order to not phone produces a stronger request than the word order not to phone. – Lawrence Dec 20 '16 at 23:04

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