I understand the difference between these constructions: "has gone to", "has been to", "has been in":
"has gone to" — there or on his way to;
"has been to" — someone has been there but he is on his way back;
"has been in" — someone is still there;
But now I am puzzled by next statements:
Have you ever been to / in Greece? — Yes, it's a very beautiful country;
When did you last go to Canada? — I've never been to Canada.
If I use "has you ever gone to Greece" construction in the first case or "I have never gone to Canada" in the second statement will it be uncorrect? Or just will sound odd? May I say "I have never been in Canada" in the second sentence. Or in these case all of the variants are possible, the problem is in how people usually say it (in what how it perfectly sounds)?
Certainly "Have you ever gone to... " is acceptable, but deciding whether to use "been" or "gone" can be a matter of context or personal preference.
"I have never gone... " is the same as above.
I don't believe you should say "I have never been in Canada" for example. The "been in" does sound incorrect (although again, the meaning is clear). You could however perfectly correctly say "I have not spent any time in Canada" for example.
Well, as far as I understand, "has gone to" means "still there", so it doesn't make sense for someone to ask "have you ever gone to" because this means that he is already there. "I have never gone to Canada" doesn't make sense as well, as it means that he is still there so he doesn't have to say that. So the right statement is "I have never been there" as it means that I didn't travel to this place and come back to my hometown. I think that applies to "I have been in" as well.