1

Does the following sentence

It is not good for all men here.

mean

1) It is not good for anyone here.

or

2) It is good for some of them, while not good for others.

I know I can use

It is not good for any man here

to precisely express the first meaning. But what's the meaning for the original sentence exactly ? Does it matter if it changes a bit like

It is not even good for all men here.

  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat. – snailcar Feb 22 '17 at 1:00
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The first option, "It is not good for anyone here", is the correct one. This sounds like a very formal statement, as "for all men" is not a construction which is generally used. "All men" probably includes both men and women, otherwise the phrase would be "it is not good for men here".

"It is not even good for all men here" is a very strange sentence. With a small change, it could be the second sentence of a series, where the first would be "It is not good for men here", followed by "It is not even good for women here".

  • Do you mean 'informal statement' ? I guess I should be more specific that the man here means people. Maybe I should change 'man' to 'person' to make it more precise. I feel confused because it seems violates my knowledge that the negation of 'all' is partial negation. I explained in my above comment. – Hua Feb 6 '17 at 11:58

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