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Today's Melbourne Cup has been couched in terms of Australia versus the rest. There's a big field of overseas horses and they rate well but soon all the punting and best guesses will have paid off or be lost in the fun of the running of the 153rd Melbourne Cup. (ABC.net.au)

Why do they put perfect and non-perfect tense that share will-auxiliary?

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    Because they were speaking aloud (the source appears to be a transcript) and didn't keep up perfectly with their sentence. This happens in speech (probably in your native language as well, if you think about it.) If this had been formal writing, it would have been edited before publication, but since it was a transcript of the newscast they kept it as-is. (To answer the question behind the question, you're right that this isn't technically correct, but if you heard this in speech it wouldn't be very noticeable.)
    – WendiKidd
    Nov 5, 2013 at 0:06

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It is awkward to use “will have (paid off)” (future perfect) and then imply “[will] be (lost)” (simple future), and would probably be reworded in formal writing, but it is legitimate insofar as it is a perfect example of grammatical syllepsis, or zeugma.

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