I am not a native speaker of English. Yesterday my teacher was teaching about Future Perfect Tense, and he said that there are some helping verbs which cannot be preceded by another helping verb. Such as has, will, shall, should, ought to, must etc. And he gave an example of following sentence.

He will has written the essay. (Right)

He will have written the essay. (Wrong)

Please explain why this is so, I am having trouble understanding.

  • 1
    You've got it backwards. Modal verbs (can/could, may/might, must, shall/should, and will/would) always take a bare infinitive (that is, an infinitive unmarked with to) complement: He will have written the essay. Feb 16, 2017 at 10:37
  • Actually I asked him about this but he said that normally "will has" is wrong but in this case he insisted that its true. That is why I got confused.
    – shujah kiani
    Feb 16, 2017 at 10:41
  • 3
    If that's what he said, he's wrong: there are no circumstances in which will has is acceptable. Feb 16, 2017 at 10:44
  • will have [done something] is invariable.
    – Lambie
    Feb 21, 2021 at 14:56

3 Answers 3


No wonder you cannot get your head around it. As stated, the examples are mislabeled.

He will have written the essay. (Right)

He will has written the essay. (Wrong)

The future perfect is used to describe an action which will be completed at some time in the future.


Will is a modal that takes the v1 after it that too of plural one Have/has is first form but the plural one will be used that is "have".

  • Welcome! I am sorry that I cannot understand your question. "Will is a modal that takes the v1 after it." Fine. Now make another sentence to follow.
    – Patriot
    Feb 21, 2021 at 15:42

Will can be used as 'modal verb' as well 'noun'. When 'will' is used as modal , it is followed by the 1st form of verb . When 'will' is used as noun both 'have and has' can be used .


His will has power over everything (as noun).

He will have to go Islampur (as modal verb).

Since, 'has' is not the 1st form of verb so, in place of this we have to use 'have'. Have is the 1st form of verb

  • 1
    Do you mean “modal” ?
    – ColleenV
    Mar 27, 2019 at 17:15

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