I am not a native speaker of English. I am in the learning phase. Yesterday my teacher was teaching about Future Perfect Tense and he said that there are some helping verbs which cannot be preceded by another helping verbs. Such as has, will, shall, should, ought to, must etc. And he gave an example of following sentence.

He will has written the essay. (Right)

He will have written the essay. (Wrong)

I am unable to get my head around it. If anyone can clear this confusion, I will be highly obliged. Thank you.

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    You've got it backwards. Modal verbs (can/could, may/might, must, shall/should, and will/would) always take a bare infinitive (that is, an infinitive unmarked with to) complement: He will have written the essay. – StoneyB on hiatus Feb 16 '17 at 10:37
  • Actually I asked him about this but he said that normally "will has" is wrong but in this case he insisted that its true. That is why I got confused. – shujah kiani Feb 16 '17 at 10:41
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    If that's what he said, he's wrong: there are no circumstances in which will has is acceptable. – StoneyB on hiatus Feb 16 '17 at 10:44

No wonder you cannot get your head around it. As stated, the examples are mislabeled.

He will have written the essay. (Right)

He will has written the essay. (Wrong)

The future perfect is used to describe an action which will be completed at some time in the future.

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Will can be used as 'model ' as well 'noun'.when 'will' is used as model , it is followed by 1st form of verb . When 'will' is used as noun both 'have and has' can be used . e.g His will has power over everything (as noun). He will have to go Islampur (as model). Since, 'has' is not 1st form of verb so, in place of this we have to use 'have'. Have is 1st form of verb

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    Do you mean “modal” ? – ColleenV Mar 27 '19 at 17:15

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