2

I sometimes see teens type:

I've not...

Instead of typing:

I haven't...

What can you say about it?

  • What is your question? – James K Feb 21 '17 at 18:41
  • 3
    Each is a different contraction for "I have not" - what is unclear? – Davo Feb 21 '17 at 18:44
  • 1
    Both are acceptable. Neither is better than the other in general, although sometimes one will sound better in context, to emphasize the "have" or the "not". – Andrew Feb 21 '17 at 19:21
  • This was covered on the Language & Usage site. – Anonymous Penguin Nov 21 '17 at 23:32
2

As has been already stated, they are both contractions of "I have not," and neither is incorrect. In the USA, I would say that "I haven't" is far more commonly heard. The use of "I've not" sounds a bit more proper and old-fashioned.

3

Both are correct, just the difference in emphasis. If you want to emphasize the negative, don't contract not and vice versa.

1

They are equal. Neither is preferable. It is your choice, depending on which you like. A professional, like a speechwriter, might have a stronger preference based on more complex criteria, but for most people, there is no difference.

If you are feeling particularly bold, you might try

I'ven't

Which is a contraction of "I have not". That one isn't "accepted", but most native speakers will understand the meaning, and some accents pronounce "I have not" close to "I've'nt".

  • Actually, because apostrophes in contractions replace missing letters, the correct spelling is "I'ven't." And this word, while maybe not incorrect, might raise some eyebrows, especially when used by a non-native speaker. I wouldn't suggest it. – Stephen C Feb 22 '17 at 2:36
  • I'ven't might be used in creative writing to simulate the pronunciation of a particular English dialect, but it's not "correct" English and would not ordinarily appear in any other kind of writing. – Andrew May 30 '17 at 20:22

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