I sometimes see teens type:

I've not...

Instead of typing:

I haven't...

What can you say about it?

  • What is your question?
    – James K
    Feb 21 '17 at 18:41
  • 3
    Each is a different contraction for "I have not" - what is unclear?
    – Davo
    Feb 21 '17 at 18:44
  • 1
    Both are acceptable. Neither is better than the other in general, although sometimes one will sound better in context, to emphasize the "have" or the "not".
    – Andrew
    Feb 21 '17 at 19:21
  • This was covered on the Language & Usage site. Nov 21 '17 at 23:32

As has been already stated, they are both contractions of "I have not," and neither is incorrect. In the USA, I would say that "I haven't" is far more commonly heard. The use of "I've not" sounds a bit more proper and old-fashioned.


Both are correct, just the difference in emphasis. If you want to emphasize the negative, don't contract not and vice versa.


They are equal. Neither is preferable. It is your choice, depending on which you like. A professional, like a speechwriter, might have a stronger preference based on more complex criteria, but for most people, there is no difference.

If you are feeling particularly bold, you might try


Which is a contraction of "I have not". That one isn't "accepted", but most native speakers will understand the meaning, and some accents pronounce "I have not" close to "I've'nt".

  • Actually, because apostrophes in contractions replace missing letters, the correct spelling is "I'ven't." And this word, while maybe not incorrect, might raise some eyebrows, especially when used by a non-native speaker. I wouldn't suggest it.
    – Stephen C
    Feb 22 '17 at 2:36
  • I'ven't might be used in creative writing to simulate the pronunciation of a particular English dialect, but it's not "correct" English and would not ordinarily appear in any other kind of writing.
    – Andrew
    May 30 '17 at 20:22

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