1

In book "Agents of Empire: Knights, Corsairs, Jesuits and Spies in the Sixteenth-Century Mediterranean World" Written by: Noel Malcolm, there is this sentence:

Sultan Suleyman the Magnificent was apparentlly spoiling for a fight with Venice, and may even have welcomed an incident in early 1537 when a hot-headed Venecian naval commander, Alesandro Conferini, attaced three Ottoman ships and sank two of them, the realy giving Suleyman a pretext for war.

My question is: Why author, british-english native, write "have welcomed", but no "has welcomed".

  • 5
    The author wrote a form of may have welcomed – the may is a modal verb. – J.R. Mar 4 '17 at 22:00
  • 2
    The verb which follows a modal verbs is always in the infinitive form. – StoneyB on hiatus Mar 5 '17 at 0:39
  • 1
    The "have" is associated with "may", as in "may have", rather than with "welcomed", as you have it bolded. – fixer1234 Mar 5 '17 at 3:05
3

Apparently you don't see that the whole verb in the sentence is may have welcomed. We usually use an infinitive after modal verbs. May is a modal verb and have welcomed is a perfect infinitive.

  • I would mention the interfering "even". – user178049 Mar 5 '17 at 4:39

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.