I heard that this question causes an eternal conflict between people, and I'd be interested in what you think about it, and whether there is an answer to it or not. (It might have already been asked on the site, in that case, sorry)
So, my question is, which one is correct:
- It is I.
- It is me.
More generally: does the verb "to be" require the nominative or the accusative form?
Unfortunately, in English only pronouns (I, you etc.) have an accusative different from their nominative. How does this work in other languages (e.g. German), which have different forms?
To me, "It is I" sounds a bit too formal. "It is me" is much more common, but is it a correct use of the language?
Which one do you use, and which do you think is correct?