What is the difference between
Prince of sea
and
Prince of the sea
Is there a difference between these "Of" and "Of the"? Or are these words in the same meaning? And which is correct?
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1Can you add a larger quote for each of your examples? – Nathan Tuggy Mar 9 '17 at 23:59
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Sure! " Raviel, lord of phantasms" – Ahmed Emad Mar 10 '17 at 0:08
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Sometimes people say it lord of the phantasms not lord of phantasms. Is there a difference between "Of" and "Of the" in the meaning? – Ahmed Emad Mar 10 '17 at 0:12
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"Phantasms" is plural... "sea" is not. You would never say "of sea" because singular words usually need an article. – Catija♦ Mar 10 '17 at 4:20
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1@user178049 This is not that. – Catija♦ Mar 10 '17 at 5:41
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The definite article conveys the sense of referring to a particular set or group.
King of kings
Means the king of all kings
King of the kings
Means king of that group of kings.
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To the best of my knowledge, "a Prince of sea"= "A sea prince", "A prince of the sea" = "The sea's prince". By the same token, a noun after the of shouldn't be plural because it's used as an adjective. – user178049 Mar 10 '17 at 5:37
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A noun isn't an adjective! Are you suggesting my examples should be King of king, which makes as much sense as Prince of sea (i.e. none) and King of the king, which does mean the king's king just as King of the kings means the kings' King. – Chris M Mar 10 '17 at 7:24
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A noun can function as an adjective in the attributive position(linguists call it a noun adjunct or attributive noun). Anyway, I don't think this post answers the question. – user178049 Mar 10 '17 at 7:27
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Yes it does, the OP asked what the difference between the two is and I answered that. Where's your answer? – Chris M Mar 10 '17 at 7:30
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@user178049 the OP isn't asking whether nouns can be used as adjectives and a noun after the word of doesn't become an adjective it is still a noun. – Chris M Mar 10 '17 at 7:42
