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What is the difference between

The company opened {it’s / its} doors in May 2015, and {has since / since then} finalized all the contracts.

And which is better?

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1 Answer 1

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You do not need the apostrophe here in the word "its". In your case it is a possessive pronoun derived from personal pronoun "it". So you must use its and not it's. It's is used when it represents a contraction from it is.
About the second part. Since then finalized is not very good. Has since finalized is much better.
So in my opinion your sentence will be like that:

The company opened its doors in May 2015 and has since finalized all the contracts.

(Present Perfect indicates a terminated action.)

I removed the comma before and. I think it's unnecessary.

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    Alex is correct. Don't let the fact that you will find confusion between 'it's' and 'its' all over the web, even by native speakers, deter you.
    – peterG
    Mar 19, 2017 at 23:47
  • "Since then has finalized" would also be grammatically correct.
    – Jasper
    Aug 3, 2017 at 17:23

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