1

I had communicated with a native speaker and received the next message:

I: We will pay and sign the booking form the next week.

Respond: Just let me know when the payment HAS BEEN MADE and I’ll keep an eye out for it.

I know that I should drop "will" after "when", but why Future II tense was used?

Is it correct tense in this situation?

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  • Why not? You will make the payment next week and then tell your correspondent "It has now been made". – Kate Bunting Mar 24 '17 at 9:37
  • Sounds all okay to me. – Xanne Mar 24 '17 at 9:38
  • 4
    I've never heard the term 'Future II tense'. This is the passive form of the present perfect. See Englishpage.com/verbpage/activepassive (Many tourists ...). When I have made the payment (active; present perfect) <==> When the payment has been made [by me] (passive, present perfect). – Edwin Ashworth Mar 24 '17 at 9:41
  • Before you pay, the tense is future. After it has been paid the tense changes to past tense. – marcellothearcane Mar 24 '17 at 10:42
0

The statement

The tense is fine, but the sentence should really be:

We will pay and sign the booking form next week.

Or if the meaning really is that the form will be signed a week after payment

We will pay Thursday and sign the booking form a week later.

The response

Just let me know when the payment HAS BEEN MADE and I’ll keep an eye out for it.

"has been made" is a present perfect form, it is used when the speaker is looking back at an action that was completed in the past, and remains in the completed state. In this case, at the time the payer "lets me know" the payment has already been completed, and is stays completed. That time is the viewpoint for this sentence. In casual speech it might be shortened to

Just let me know when the payment's been made.

or an active voice could be used

Just let me know when you've made the payment, and ...

or

Just let me know when you've paid.

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