3

Imagine a following situation.

Mike and Natalie share same preferences in perfume. They both like sweet, clean and soft aroma/scent.

Two other people - Kate and Jane - are talking about Mike. And Kate notes that she likes an aroma of perfume that Mike uses. Jane are asking her friend what perfume Mike wears and Kate have decided to describe it in following way:

He wears same ones as Natalie does.

Main Q. Is it correct way to say it? How would you point on same preferences of both in given conversation?

Additional Q1 Is it okay to say "wearing perfume"? I see examples with this collocation in the Internet, but still better to ask and be perfectly sure.

Additional Q2 What the difference between words "aroma" and "scent" in terms of perfume? In my native language we use the word "aroma" mostly with very few occasions of using "scent", but from what I see (and may be totally wrong!) the word "scent" is acceptable in English too.

Thanks.

|improve this question
  • 1
    In the US (and I suspect in many other English-speaking countries as well), men wear cologne, and women wear perfume. They may share the same preferences, but it's very unlikely Mike would wear the same perfume as Natalie. – J.R.♦ May 15 '17 at 15:20
  • 2
    Oh, thanks, I did not know that. You see, in my country word "cologne" has a negative sense. Back in USSR people were forced to use national colognes only, with no foreign alternatives (Iron Curtain, what I can say?). These colognes were scenting awful, but since we have no other choice we wear then. When USSR was crashed, tons of foreign man perfumes and toilet waters (dior, channel, hugo, etc.) were imported, and from 90s we started to use word "cologne" mostly to describe awful soviet perfumes from the past and in some comic reliefs. But this a offtop, thank you for clever point! – Mark May 15 '17 at 15:36
  • And for "...but it's very unlikely Mike would wear the same perfume as Natalie..", well, unisex maybe? =) But I see your point, yes my terminology is wrong. – Mark May 15 '17 at 15:37
  • @J.R. I was going to say, that in the UK men's perfume is most often described as "after-shave". But I now realise that, as with so many things, I am about 30 years behind the times. In my youth, a guy could have had a beard three feet long, but it would still have been called "after-shave". But just looking at some advertisements I see the use of euphemisms such as "Eau de toilette" etc. – WS2 May 15 '17 at 15:37
0

He wears the same ones as Natalie does.

is correct, since it is in the plural, it implies they both wear several different perfumes which are the same. I you wanted to say the perfumes are similar but not exactly the same

He wears perfumes similiar to Natalie's, they both like sweet, clean and soft aroma/scents.

Yes, people wear perfume.

Usually the smell of perfume is referred to as a scent, aroma is often used for things like food or coffee which is consumed.

|improve this answer
  • 3
    ... the same ones (as) Natalie does – Tᴚoɯɐuo May 15 '17 at 17:07
  • 1
    "He wears perfumes similiar to Natalie": Shouldn't this be "He wears perfumes similiar to Natalie's"? – Massimo Ortolano May 17 '17 at 4:56

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.