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I hunger to know whether it's true that an "s" at the end of such adverb as "inward", "forward", "backward", "outward", "upward", "downward", and "toward" (as a preposition only) is a choice of British English only?

I was analyzing these words and noticed that without the "s" at the end the word is used as an adjective in Br.E, except for "toward" that seems to be archaic as adjective.

  • I was going forward (Am.E)
  • I was going forwards (Br.E)

But

  • It was a forward attack (Both Am.E and Br.E since forwards is incorrect as an adjective)

Are my presumed assumptions correct?

  • 2
    I hunger to know? I hope you are not Holofernes, are you? – ΥΣΕΡ26328 May 30 '17 at 9:51
  • Nope, I'm Russian. I just often use those words and wish to finally find out whether I can use them without the "s" at the end when speaking to British people and Americans alike. – SovereignSun May 30 '17 at 10:02
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    Pretty similar question with good answers that might help: ell.stackexchange.com/q/744/51806 – SteveES May 30 '17 at 10:23

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