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In this example (not sure about the punctuation because I heard it):

When you get a new box, the question is do I keep the box or do I throw the box out - me personally I keep it.

How come the object form of I is used in the bolded phrase?

  • Welcome to the unfettered domain of idiomatic English! It is far from uncommon to hear (and read) the first person objective pronoun used as a subject. "Me and Bob drank some brewskis." – P. E. Dant Jun 6 '17 at 21:26
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    @P.E.Dant No, that's not what's going on. The subject there is I: "I keep it" – Laurel Jun 6 '17 at 21:31
  • @Laurel - Agreed. The me is added in – perhaps as a "conversational colloquialism" added for emphasis? Remove it and the sentence reads just fine. – J.R. Jun 6 '17 at 21:33
  • @J.R. This is quite a curveball, you must admit, but my comment, aye, it's in error. ;). I spent ten minutes deciding that there is no way to assert with certainty which pronoun the adverb modifies: I or me. I dimly recall that there is a name for the role that the phrase "Me personally" plays here (if the reader assumes a comma after the pronoun). Some grammarian or another had a name for the role, and for this kind of phrase. (cont.) – P. E. Dant Jun 7 '17 at 3:30
  • (cont.) Also rolled up in this question is the chestnut: what is "personally" here? And does it modify the objective pronoun? After yet another 10 minutes, I invoked StoneyB's Ricky's Arrogance Principle and went looking for a wee dram. – P. E. Dant Jun 7 '17 at 3:30
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This is a common way while speaking to add emphasis to the following I, in this case to the fact that the speaker actually does something ("I keep it"). I would not use it in writing (except for really casual writing) because it is colloquial and not good stylistically.

Grammatically, it should be thought of as an ellipsis of a longer phrase, such as "for me", "as for me", "speaking for me", etc. (Sometimes these words are not elided at all.)

These examples from the internet should help:

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