1

Can I use this adeverbs of time in order to convey my experience which I've got at the moment of speaking? I mean:

  1. I've done it many times before now.
  2. I've done it many times by now.
  3. I've done it many times before.
  4. I've done it many times so far.

Are they equal and have the same meaning?

Maybe "so far" has some kind of negative implication?

  1. I haven't heard this legend so far.
  2. He hasn't done it so far.
  • Including the word now in #1 strikes me as being "unusual" phrasing for most contexts. And #4 also seems non-idiomatic for most contexts, because so far is normally used to imply not much so far, but much more to come. Perhaps it's a personal thing, but I would rarely if ever include by in #2. – FumbleFingers Reinstate Monica Jun 9 '17 at 14:56
1

These are really situational and preference related but lets break them down:

  1. I've done it many times before now - This I would NOT use. 'before now' is not good english.
  2. I've done it many times by now - As this is I would NOT use either. Maybe try "By now, I have done it many times" - Still not a great option
  3. I've done it many times before. - This one is not bad. It can be left as is.
  4. I've done it many times so far. - This is OK. Really I think what makes these sound weird is 'many times' - I would say "I have done it a bunch so far" or "I have done this a lot".

"So Far" refers to time. It basically means 'NOW' - I havent heard this legend so far - really does not sound right. Maybe try "I havent heard this legend yet"

He hasn't done it so far - This sounds ok but depends on the context in which it is used

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.