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The task is on translating. I want to know is it acceptable to use Perfect Gerund (action of the Gerund has happened before the main action) instead of Gerund.

"I've been a bad wife to him", - she thought. "Just yesterday I scolded him for not wiping/not having wiped his feet before he entered the kitchen. I'll never see him again."

marked as duplicate by FumbleFingers, Nathan Tuggy, P. E. Dant, Varun Nair, shin Jun 12 '17 at 6:03

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  • You might say that the perfect is redundant because the past/anterior meaning is conveyed by "before". So "not wiping his feet before he entered the kitchen" is fine. In any case, there are no so-called gerunds anywhere to be seen. – BillJ Jun 9 '17 at 14:40
  • I vote to close this question because although it asks about the gerund, there are no gerunds in the text. – P. E. Dant Jun 11 '17 at 4:32

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