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The task is on translating. I want to know is it acceptable to use Perfect Gerund (action of the Gerund has happened before the main action) instead of Gerund.

"I've been a bad wife to him", - she thought. "Just yesterday I scolded him for not wiping/not having wiped his feet before he entered the kitchen. I'll never see him again."

  • You might say that the perfect is redundant because the past/anterior meaning is conveyed by "before". So "not wiping his feet before he entered the kitchen" is fine. In any case, there are no so-called gerunds anywhere to be seen. – BillJ Jun 9 '17 at 14:40
  • I vote to close this question because although it asks about the gerund, there are no gerunds in the text. – P. E. Dant Jun 11 '17 at 4:32

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