Everywhere the local turks vowed that death was preferable to rule by Greeks.

Except in this line, everywhere in the text the author used the Greeks. Why is the not used before "Greeks" in the above sentence? Is there any exception or any other rule that governs it?

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    In this case, the omission of the article was merely a stylistic choice on the part of the author. No, there is no "rule" governing when the article must or must not be used as a determiner with a national or ethnic "label". – P. E. Dant Reinstate Monica Jun 22 '17 at 6:34
  • @P.E.Dant..we could call it an exception? – M.Naeem Ahmad Jun 22 '17 at 6:36
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    It's not an exception, no. The author could as easily have written "...preferable to rule by the Greeks" with no change in meaning. – P. E. Dant Reinstate Monica Jun 22 '17 at 6:37

death was preferable to rule by Greeks

death was preferable to rule by the Greeks

It can depend on context - these phrases might mean the same thing.

If the writer previously referred to a particular group of people who happen to be Greek, "the Greeks" would be referring to that particular group.

In your sentence it is fairly clear that any and all Greeks (not just one particular group) are being referred to.

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